Objective Indian Polity by Laxmikant


Part One Constitutional Framework I.3 – I.64

1. Historical Background I.5

1. Consider the following statements:
1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919, the Indian Legislature was made more representative and for the first time bicameral.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935, prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)


2. Which of the following are the principal features of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the Provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)


3. Consider the following statements:
1. The first Public Service Commission in India was set up in the year 1926, on the recommendation of the Lee Commission on the Superior Civil Services in India.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for setting up of public service commissions at both the federal and provincial levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)


4. Which one of the following Acts provided the setting up of a Board of Control in Britain, through which the British Government could fully control the British East India Company’s civil, military and revenue affairs in India?

(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1833
(d) Government of India Act of 1858
Ans: (b)


5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
A. The Government of India Act, 1935 1. Transfer of power from the East India Company to the British crown
B. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 2. Envisaged Dominion status to India
C. The Government of India Act, 1919 3. Introduction of provincial autonomy
D. The Government of India Act, 1858 4. Introduction of Dyarchy in provinces
5. Introduction of separate electorate for Muslims
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 3 5 4 1
(c) 1 5 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (b)


6. Partially responsible governments in the provinces were established under which one of the following Acts?

(a) The Government of India Act, 1919
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1892
Ans: (a)


7. The initial idea of recruitment on merit principle can be traced to the:

(a) Lee Commission
(b) Macaulay Committee
(c) Islington Commission
(d) Maxwell Committee
Ans: (b)


8. During the period of British rule in India, the rules made under which one of the following were known as the Devolution Rules?

(a) Government of India Act, 1919
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (a)


9. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892 : Principle of Election
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 : Responsible Government
(c) Government of India Act, 1919 : Provincial Autonomy
(d) Government of India Act, 1935 : Dyarchy in States
Ans: (a)


10. Assertion (A) :Notwithstanding the introduction of Provincial Autonomy, the Government of India Act, 1935 retained control of the Central Government over the Provinces in a certain sphere.
Reason (R) :The Governor was required to act in his own discretion in certain matters for which he was to act without ministerial advice and under the control and directions of the Governor-General.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


11. In the Federation established by the Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the:

(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Provincial Legislature
(c) Governor General
(d) Provincial Governor
Ans: (c)


12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
A. Government of India Act, 1858 1. All-India Federation of Provinces and PrincelyStates
B. Indian Councils Act, 1861 2. Appointment of Secretary of State for India
C. Indian Councils Act, 1909 3. Beginning of representation and legislative devolution
D. Government of India Act, 1919 4. Dyarchy in Provinces
5. Morley-Minto Reforms
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 5 4
(c) 3 4 5 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (b)


13. The Government of India Act, 1919, was based upon:

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Report
(c) Ramsay McDonald Award
(d) Nehru Report
Ans: (b)


14. Under which one of the following Acts, was the Communal Electorate System introduced by the British in India, for the first time?

(a) Government of India Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(d) Indian Councils Act of 1892
Ans: (a)


15. What were the salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935?
1. Abolition of Council of India
2. Dyarchy at the Centre
3. Abolition of Dyarchy in the States
4. Establishment of Federal Court
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)


16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Feature) (Act)
A. Federal Scheme of Government 1. Minto-Morley Reforms, 1909
B. Dyarchy in Provincial Government 2. Indian Councils Act, 1861
C. Communal representation 3. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Rigid centralization 4. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
Codes :
A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 1 4 2
Ans: (b)


17. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947?

(a) R. K. Shanmukham Chetty
(b) John Mathai
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan
(d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh
Ans: (c)


18. Which one of the following Acts laid the foundation of the British Administration in India ?

(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1892
Ans: (a)


19. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I
(Provisions) List-ll
(Acts)
A. Designation of the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and his Government as the Government of India 1. Charter Act of 1833
B. Dyarchy introduced in Indian Government 2. Government of India Act, 1858
C. Twin features of All-India Federation and Provincial Autonomy 3. Government of India Act, 1919
D. Control of the Government of India transferred from East India Company to the British Crown 4. Government of India Act, 1935
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (c)


20. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India ?

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Dr. BR Ambedkar
(d) T Krishnamachari
Ans: (c)


21. With reference to the period of British Rule in India, Indian Statutory Commission is popularly known as :

(a) Cabinet Mission
(b) Hunter Commission
(c) Sadlar Commission
(d) Simon Commission
Ans: (d)


22. During the British Rule in India, who was the first Indian to be appointed as Law Member of the Governor General’s Council ?

(a) Raja Kishori Lal Goswami
(b) Motilal Nehru
(c) Satyendra Sinha
(d) Tej Bahadur Sapru##)

Ans: (c)


2. Making of the Constitution I.11

1. Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Constituent Assembly:
1. The representatives were to be elected from the four constituents–Hindu, Muslim, Sikh and Christian.
2. The chairman of the Union Constitution Committee was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
3. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was 389.
4. The Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar consisted of eight members.
Which of these is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans: (c)


2. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India was/were given immediate effect from November 26, 1949?
1. Citizenship
2. Emergency provisions
3. Elections
4. Federal system
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)


3. What was the procedure followed for adoption of the Constitution of India?

(a) It was submitted to the people of India for ratification.
(b) It was submitted to the Governor-General for his assent.
(c) It was adopted when the interim government approved it.
(d) It was adopted when it received the signature of the President and Members of the Constituent Assembly.
Ans: (d)


4. Who among the following was the Chairman of the States Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Patel
Ans: (b)


5. The Constitution of India as framed by the Constituent Assembly was finally adopted and enacted on:

(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 30th January, 1948
(c) 26th November, 1949
(d) 26th January, 1950
Ans: (c)


6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Constituent Assembly Committee) (Chairman)
A. Steering Committee 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee 2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Union Constitution Committee 3. J. B. Kripalani
D. Provincial Constitution Committee 4. Jawaharlal Nehru
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 3 4 2
Ans: (a)


7. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:

(a) Directly elected by the people.
(b) Nominated by the Governor General
(c) Elected by the Legislatures of various provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely states.
(d) Nominated by the Congress and the Muslim League.
Ans: (c)


8. Who among the following was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) K. M. Munshi
(c) Sir B. N. Rau
(d) T. T. Krishnamachari
Ans: (c)


9. Assertion (A) :The Constituent Assembly of 1946 was not elected on the basis of universal adult franchise.
Reason (R) :The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


10. Who among the following moved the “Objectives Resolution” in the Constituent Assembly?

(a) B. N. Rao
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (c)


11. Consider the following statements:
1. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly.
2. H. C. Mukherjee was elected as the Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly.
Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2##)

Ans: (c)


3. Salient Features of the Constitution I.14

1. Which of the following statements about the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Popular sovereignty and adult franchise are the basic features of the Constitution.
2. The Constitution, in so far as the division of powers between the Centre and the States is concerned, is rigid.
3. The Constitution recognises the interdependence of civil and economic rights.
4. The Constitution mentions direct control by the people such as referendum, initiative and recall.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)


2. Consider the following statements related to secularism in India:
1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics.
2. It bans parties with religious affiliations from contesting elections.
3. It grants religious liberty to all communities.
4. It accepts community personal laws.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)


3. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India incorporates salaries and allowances of members of Parliament, the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, as one of the items ?

(a) Fifth Schedule
(b) Seventh Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans: (b)


4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Subject) (Part of the Constitution of India)
A. Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits 1. Part V
B. The Union Judiciary 2. Part XII
C. The Executive of States 3. Part XI
D. Relations between the Union and the States 4. Part VI
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (b)


5. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India?

(a) Written Constitution and supremacy of the Constitution
(b) Quasi-federal structure
(c) Committed Judiciary
(d) Distribution of Powers
Ans: (c)


6. Consider the following statements:
The Indian Constitution is:

1. an unwritten constitution.
2. a written constitution.
3. largely based on the Government of India Act, 1935.
4. a gift of British Parliament.
Of these statements:

(a) 2 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans: (b)


7. The Second Schedule of the Constitution of India does not contain the provisions as to who among the following?

(a) The President
(b) The Speaker of the House of People
(c) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(d) The Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
Ans: (d)


8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Provisions in the Constitution of India) (Source)
A. Emergency Provisions 1. Ireland
B. Fundamental Rights 2. The United Kingdom
C. Parliamentary System 3. The United States of America
D. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. Germany
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (c)


9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Languages : Eighth Schedule
(b) The forms of oaths or affirmations : Second Schedule
(c) Allocation of seats in the Council of States : Fourth Schedule
(d) Provisions as to disqualification on the ground : Tenth Schedule
of defection
Ans: (b)


10. Consider the following statements with reference to Secularism in India:
1. Secularism means that the State has no recognised religion of State.
2. Secularism means that the State treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the State regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)


11. Assertion (A) :Not contented with merely laying down the fundamental principles of governance, the framers of the Indian Constitution followed the Government of India Act, 1919 in providing matters of administrative details.
Reason (R) :The framers of the Indian Constitution had the apprehension that in the prevailing conditions of the country at that time, the Constitution might be subverted unless the form of administration was also included.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)


12. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) It contains the languages recognised in the Constitution.
(b) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
(c) It lists distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
(d) It deals with the salaries and emoluments of the constitutional functionaries.
Ans: (c)


13. Consider the following statements:
The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide for:

1. Single citizenship for the whole of India.
2. Strictly federal form of government.
3. Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.
Of the above statements:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans: (d)


14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Schedule of the Constitution of India) (Content)
A. Ninth Schedule 1. Provisions regarding Panchayati Raj Institutions
B. Tenth Schedule 2. Provisions regarding land reforms legislations
C. Eleventh Schedule 3. Provisions regarding administration of tribal areas
D. Sixth Schedule 4. Provisions regarding the distribution of powers between the Centre and States
5. Provisions regarding the disqualification on ground of defection
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 5 1 3
(c) 3 5 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3##)

Ans: (b)


4. Preamble of the Constitution I.19

1. The following are enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India:
1. Equality of status and opportunity.
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
3. Justice—social, economic and political.
4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
5. Unity and integrity of the Nation.
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the Preamble?

(a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(c) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
(d) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
Ans: (b)


2. The philosophical postulates of the Constitution of India are based on:

(a) Nehru Report, 1928.
(b) Objectives Resolution of Pandit Nehru, 1947.
(c) Mahatma Gandhi’s article ‘Independence in Young India’,1922.
(d) Indian National Congress’s Resolution for Complete Independence, 1929.
Ans: (b)


3. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is:

(a) Not a part of the Constitution.
(b) A part of the Constitution but it neither confers any powers nor imposes any duties nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution.
(c) A part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity.
(d) A part of the Constitution and it confers powers and imposes duties as any other provisions of the Constitution.
Ans: (c)


4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares the resolve of the people of India to secure to all its citizens:

(a) Freedom of residence anywhere in the country.
(b) Right to establish and administer educational institutions of choice.
(c) Liberty of belief, faith and worship.
(d) Right to education at primary level.
Ans: (c)


5. The term “economic justice” in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, is a resolution for:

(a) Equal distribution of wealth.
(b) Economy in the administration of justice.
(c) Socio-economic revolution.
(d) Cheap justice to the poor.
Ans: (a)


6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Terms Mentioned in Preamble) (Implications)
A. Republic 1. Head of the State is not a hereditary monarch
B. Secular 2. State does not recognise any religion as a state religion
C. Democratic 3. Government gets its authority from the will of the people
D. Sovereign 4. State is free to conduct its own internal and external affairs
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)


7. The text of the Preamble to the Constitution of India aims to secure:

(a) Fundamental rights to all individuals.
(b) Fundamental duties to citizens of India.
(c) Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation.
(d) Security of service to Government servants.
Ans: (c)


8. Which of the following terms was not included in a ‘Union of Trinity’ by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in his concluding speech in the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Liberty
(b) Flexibility
(c) Equality
(d) Fraternity
Ans: (b)


9. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted in the Preamble by the:

(a) Fifteenth Amendment
(b) Thirty-ninth Amendment
(c) Forty-second Amendment
(d) Forty-fourth Amendment
Ans: (c)


10. The sequence in which the given terms are mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India is:

(a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
(b) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
(c) Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Republic
(d) Sovereign, Democratic, Secular, Socialist, Republic
Ans: (a)


11. The Preamble to the Constitution of India:

(a) Is not a part of the Constitution.
(b) Indicates the objectives to be achieved.
(c) Cannot be amended by the Parliament.
(d) Is a source of authority of the Constitution of India. ##)

Ans: (b)


5. Union and Its Territory I.22

1. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any existing State of India.
2. A Bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)


2. Consider the following with respect to the Union of India:
1. Formation of the State of Nagaland.
2. States Reorganisation Act.
3. Formation of the State of Haryana.
4. Formation of the State of Gujarat.
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?

(a) 4-2-3-1
(b) 2-4-3-1
(c) 4-2-1-3
(d) 2-4-1-3
Ans: (d)


3. The boundary of a State in India can be altered through the procedure laid down in:

(a) Article 368
(b) Article 130
(c) Article 70
(d) Article 3
Ans: (d)


4. In 1953, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru announced the formation of a Commission to study the reorganization of states on a linguistic basis under the chairmanship of:

(a) T. T. Krishnamachari
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Fazl Ali
(d) G. B. Pant
Ans: (c)


5. The Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 to create:

(a) 16 States and 3 Union Territories
(b) 15 States and 5 Union Territories
(c) 14 States and 6 Union Territories
(d) 24 States and 9 Union Territories
Ans: (c)


6. The States of the Indian Union can be reorganised or their boundaries altered by:

(a) The Union Parliament by a simple majority in the ordinary process of legislation.
(b) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament.
(c) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament and the consent of the legislature of the concerned States.
(d) An executive order of the Union Government with the consent of the concerned State Governments.
Ans: (a)


7. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states.
(b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states.
(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states.
(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states.
Ans: (c)


8. Who among the following was the head of the Linguistic Provinces Commission appointed in the year 1948, to enquire into the desirability of linguistic provinces?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Justice S. K. Dhar
(c) Justice Fazl Ali
(d) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Ans: (b)


9. What is the correct chronological order in which the following States of the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Nagaland
3. Maharashtra
4. Haryana
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1-3-4-2
(b) 3-1-2-4
(c) 1-3-2-4
(d) 3-1-4-2
Ans: (c)


10. Who, among the following, was not a member of the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) appointed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru ?

(a) Justice Fazl Ali
(b) Potti Sriramulu
(c) K. M. Panikkar
(d) Hridayanath Kunzru
Ans: (b)


11. Consider the following statements with reference to the linguistic reorganisation of states in independent India:
1. The separate state of Andhra for the Telugu people came into existence in 1953.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favour of the movement for linguistic reorganisation of states that came in the wake of the success of the Andhra movement.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)


12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(State) (Full Statehood Granted In)
A. Goa 1. 1966
B. Haryana 2. 1972
C. Meghalaya 3. 1976
D. Sikkim 4. 1987
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3##)

Ans: (d)


6. Citizenship I.26

1. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth, is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.
2. A person who was born on 1st July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)


2. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India?
1. By birth
2. By descent
3. By registration
4. By nationalisation
5. By incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)


3. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with citizenship in India?

(a) Articles 333 to 337
(b) Articles 17 to 20
(c) Articles 5 to 11
(d) Articles 1 to 4
Ans: (c)


4. In which of the following years, the Citizenship Act, 1955 has been amended?
1. 1986
2. 1992
3. 2003
4. 2005
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)


5. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India?

(a) Article 7
(b) Article 10
(c) Article 8
(d) Article 9
Ans: (c)


6. Which one among the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?

(a) The Union Cabinet
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The Law Commission
Ans: (b)


7. In which Part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are mentioned?

(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV
Ans: (b)


8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Provisions Pertaining to Citizenship) (Contained in Articles)
A. Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated 1. Article 5
to India from Pakistan
B. Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state 2. Article 7
not to be citizens
C. Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution 3. Article 6
D. Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan 4. Article 8
5. Article 9
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 5
(b) 2 5 3 1
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 5 1 2
Ans: (d)


9. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person lose citizenship of India?
1. By Renunciation
2. By Termination
3. By Deprivation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)


10. Consider the following statements:
1. Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955) , also provided for the Commonwealth Citizenship.
2. The provision for Commonwealth Citizenship was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2##)

Ans: (a)


7. Fundamental Rights I.29

1. Consider the following statements:
In view of Article 20 of the Constitution of India, no person accused of an offence can be compelled to:

1. Give his signature or thumb impression for identification.
2. Give oral testimony either in or out of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)


2. Consider the following statements:
1. The writ of mandamus is available not only against judicial authorities but also against administrative authorities.
2. The writ of prohibition is issued only against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)


3. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for reservation in the matters of promotion in the services under the state in favour of the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes.
2. As per provisions of the Constitution of India, for getting reservation for the appointments and posts under the state, a class must be backward and should not be adequately represented in the services under the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)


4. Consider the following statements:
1. A Constitutional amendment inserting a regulation in the Ninth Schedule can be challenged on the ground of violation of basic structure of the Constitution.
2. Any legislation enacted by Parliament cannot be successfully challenged for affecting the basic structure of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)


5. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Freedom of speech and expression : Include the freedom of Press
(b) Freedom of conscience : Include the right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs
(c) Right to personal liberty : Include the right to carry on any trade or business
(d) Right to equality : Include the principle of natural justice
Ans: (c)


6. Assertion (A) :The principle of equality before law means that there should be equality of treatment under equal circumstances.
Reason (R) :All persons are not equal by nature, attainment or circumstances.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


7. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right Against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)


8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Writs) (Ground)
A. Habeas Corpus 1. Non-performance of public duties
B. Mandamus 2. Unlawful detention
C. Quo-Warranto 3. Correctional directions to subordinate courts
D. Certiorari 4. Unlawful occupation of public office
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (b)


9. As far as the Armed Forces are concerned, the Fundamental Rights granted under Articles 14 and 19 of Constitution are:

(a) Not available at all
(b) Available to the Armed Forces but not to other forces
(c) Available only at the discretion of the Chief of the Army staff
(d) Available only according to law made by Parliament
Ans: (d)


10. In Indian Constitution, the power to issue a writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is vested only in:

(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The High Courts
(c) The Subordinate Courts
(d) The Supreme Court and the High Courts
Ans: (d)


11. Which of the following rights is not explicitly mentioned in the Fundamental Rights but has been upheld to be so by several pronouncements of the Supreme Court?

(a) Equity before law
(b) Right to non-discrimination in public employment
(c) Right to form associations or unions
(d) Right to freedom of Press
Ans: (d)


12. Which of the following statements are true with regard to the Fundamental Rights of the minorities in educational matters?
1. The minority has only the right to administer the educational institutions.
2. The minority has the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
3. The right is absolute and not subject to any restriction.
4. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed to promote efficiency and prevent maladministration.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)


13. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 15 : Special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes.
(b) Article 22 : Safeguards under Preventive Detention
(c) Article 20 : Immunity from double punishment
(d) Article 16 : Discrimination in favour of women in service under the State
Ans: (d)


14. Which of the following statements is/are correct of the writ of prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some matters not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)


15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained In)
A. Liberty of thought and expression 1. Right to freedom
B. Freedom of speech and expression 2. Cultural and educational rights
C. Making special provision for women and children 3. Preamble
D. Protection of interest of Minorities 4. Protection of life and liberty
5. Right to equality
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 3 1 5 2
(b) 2 5 4 1
(c) 3 5 4 2
(d) 2 4 5 1
Ans: (a)


16. Under the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is not a specific ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion?

(a) Public order
(b) Morality
(c) Social Justice
(d) Health
Ans: (c)


17. The scope of ‘life and personal liberty’, as envisaged in Article 21 of the Constitution of India, has expanded considerably over the years. Which one of the following can still not be subject of this protection?

(a) The Right to good health
(b) The Right of a bonded labour to rehabilitation after release
(c) The Right, under a settlement, to claim bonus or dearness allowance
(d) The Right to livelihood by means which are not illegal, immoral or opposed to public policy
Ans: (c)


18. Assertion (A) :Preventive Detention is included in the chapter on Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R) :The Constitution has vested the legislative power with regard to preventive detention in the Parliament only and the State Legislatures have no authority in this regard.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (c)


19. Which of the following is not included in Article 19 of the Constitution of India, pertaining to the Right to Freedom?

(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
(b) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
(c) Right to form associations or unions
(d) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms
Ans: (b)


20. Consider the following statements:
The ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution includes:

1. The Government and Parliament of India.
2. The Government and legislature of the states.
3. Local authorities or other authorities within the territories of India or under the control of Government of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)


21. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul’ of the Constitution?

(a) Right to equality
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Right to freedom of religion
Ans: (c)


22. Which one of the following freedoms is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?

(a) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property
(b) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
(c) Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms
(d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans: (a)


23. Assertion (A) :One of the fundamental principles of the Indian Constitution is the Rule of Law.
Reason (R) :The Constitution of India has guaranteed to every citizen the equality before law and has recognized the judiciary as the unfailing guardian of the rights of people.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Cases) (Related to)
A. Indra Sawhney Case 1. Power of Parliament to amend Part III of the Constitution upheld
B. Minerva Mills Case 2. Procedure Established by Law
C. Gopalan Case 3. Reservation for Backward Classes
D. Shankari Prasad Case 4. Revival of Judicial Review
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4

Ans: (c)


25. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implicit in:

(a) The Right to Freedom
(b) The Right to Personal Liberty
(c) The Right to Equality
(d) The Right Against Exploitation
Ans: (b)


26. Assertion (A) : An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression.
Reason (R) : An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)


27. Right to Education is a fundamental right emanating from right to:

(a) Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19
(b) Culture and education under Articles 29 and 30
(c) Life and personal liberty under Article 21
(d) Equality before law and equal protection of the laws under Article 14
Ans: (c)


28. The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights. Which one of the following shall not be construed as law for this purpose?

(a) Ordinance
(b) Bye-law
(c) Rule
(d) Constitutional amendment
Ans: (d)


29. On which one of the following freedoms, can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of the security of the state?

(a) Speech and expression
(b) Peaceful assembly
(c) Association or union
(d) Movement
Ans: (a)


30. Which of the following are mentioned under separate Articles in Part III of the Constitution of India pertaining to Fundamental Rights?
1. Abolition of untouchability
2. Abolition of titles
3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
4. Protection of interests of minorities
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)


31. Fundamental rights guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by:

(a) A proclamation of national emergency
(b) An Act passed by the Parliament
(c) An amendment of the Constitution
(d) The judicial decisions of the Supreme Court
Ans: (a)


32. The Right to Property was converted into a legal right from a Fundamental Right, because it:

(a) Tied the hands of the government to prevent corruption
(b) Gave rise to litigations that made judiciary overburden
(c) Led to severe conflict between judiciary and the Parliament
(d) Increased public resentment
Ans: (c)


33. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Writ) List-II (Purpose)
A. Writ of mandamus 1. Prohibition of an action
B. Writ of injunction 2. Direction to the official for the performance of a duty
C. Writ of certiorari 3. Trial of the right to a title or elective office
D. Writ of quo-warranto 4. Transferring of a case from lower court to a court of higher jurisdiction
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans: (a)


34. Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated therein, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention?

(a) 2 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 6 months
Ans: (b)


35. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is guaranteed only to the citizens of India and not to the foreigners living in India?

(a) Equality before law and equal protection of laws
(b) Freedom of speech and expression
(c) Right to life and liberty
(d) Right to the freedom of religion
Ans: (b)


36. The Supreme Court has increased the ambit of the Right to Life (Article 21) to include which of the following?
1. Right to life includes the Right to live with dignity
2. Right to life includes the Right to livelihood
3. Right to life includes the Right to receive minimum wages
4. Right to life includes the Right to guaranteed employment for 100 days in a year
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)


37. In accordance with the text of the Constitution, a reasonable restriction in the interest of ‘sovereignty and integrity’ of India can be imposed on the right to:

(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Move freely throughout the territory of India
(c) Reside and settle in any part of the territory
(d) Carry on any occupation, trade or business of India
Ans: (a)


38. Which one of the following is the best justification for the affirmative action policies in India?

(a) The principle of non-discrimination
(b) The principle of equal opportunity
(c) The principle of group disadvantage
(d) The principle of radical redistribution
Ans: (b)


39. Assertion (A) :The Indian Constitution recognizes the supremacy of judiciary.
Reason (R) :The question as to what constitutes a reasonable restriction on fundamental rights is to be determined by the courts of law.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


40. Under the term “Double Jeopardy” implied in Article 20 of the Constitution of India, a person:

(a) Convicted by a court of law cannot be punished under departmental proceedings for the same offence.
(b) Punished departmentally cannot be prosecuted in a court of law for the same offence.
(c) Shall not be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
(d) Cannot be subjected to proceedings in civil courts for disobedience of an injunction along with criminal proceedings.
Ans: (c)


41. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by:

(a) Article 15 of the Constitution
(b) Article 16 of the Constitution
(c) Article 29 of the Constitution
(d) Article 14 of the Constitution
Ans: (a)


42. What is the correct sequence of the following?
1. Scheduled Castes Order
2. Untouchability Offences Act
3. Protection of Civil Rights Act
4. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1
Ans: (c)


43. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Right to Equality : Includes the principle of natural justice
(b) Right to personal liberty : Includes right to livelihood
(c) Protections available to an accused person : Includes protection against ex-post facto laws in civil matters
(d) Protections against arrest and detention : Includes right to consult and to be defended by a legal practitioner of one’s choice
Ans: (c)


44. Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during emergency?

(a) Freedoms under Article 19
(b) Right to constitutional remedies under Articles 32 and 226
(c) Rights under Articles 21 and 22
(d) Rights under Articles 20 and 21
Ans: (d)


45. Assertion (A) :Speaking on Article 32 in the Constituent Assembly, Dr. Ambedkar described the Article as the very soul of the Constitution.
Reason (R) :Article 32 provides effective remedies against violation of fundamental rights.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


46. Which of the following statements about the right to freedom of religion is not correct?

(a) The State can regulate the economic, financial, political or other secular activities which may be associated with religious practices.
(b) Restrictions can be imposed on the right to freedom of religion on grounds of maintenance of public order, morality or health.
(c) Every religious denomination has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
(d) Funds appropriated by a religious denomination for promoting and maintaining a particular religion are taxable.
Ans: (d)


47. Through which provisions does the Constitution of India explicitly prohibits racial discrimination in India?

(a) Articles 14 and 17
(b) Articles 17 and 23
(c) Articles 15 and 16
(d) Article 17 only
Ans: (c)


48. Which one of the following rights cannot be inferred from Article 21 of the Constitution?

(a) Right against inhuman treatment
(b) Right against delayed execution
(c) Right against solitary confinement
(d) Right to form association
Ans: (d)


49. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Writ of Habeas Corpus : Available against private individuals as well
(b) Writ of Quo-Warranto : Available against subordinate courts only
(c) Writ of Certiorari : Available against autonomous bodies only
(d) Writ of Prohibition : Available against public servants only
Ans: (a)


50. Assertion (A) :Education is the fundamental right of every child between the age of 6 and 14 years.
Reason (R) :The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act provided for right to education.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (c)


51. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available to both the citizens and aliens?

(a) The right to equality of opportunity in
(b) The right to freedoms under Article 19 public employment
(c) Cultural and educational rights
(d) The right to equality before law
Ans: (d)


52. Which of the following are not included in the right to freedom of religion in the Constitution of India?
1. Freedom of conscience and the right to practice and propagate religion
2. Levying of taxes or use of funds of the Government for the promotion or maintenance of any religion
3. Establishment and maintenance of religious and charitable institutions
4. Imparting of religious instruction in any Government maintained institution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)


53. Which one of the under mentioned rights is guaranteed to citizens as right to freedom under Article 19?

(a) The right to vote
(b) The right to citizenship
(c) The right to contest an election
(d) The right to assemble peaceably and without arms
Ans: (d)


54. Assertion (A) :In Minerva Mills v. Union of India, Art. 31-C as amended by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 was held invalid.
Reason (R) :The amendment of Art. 31-C destroyed the basic structure of the Constitution.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


55. Which of the following are the grounds on which discrimination of citizens for admission into educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited?
1. Religion and Race
2. Sex and Place of birth
3. Nationality and Colour
4. Age and Nativity
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (b)


56. Which one of the following is the correct association?

(a) Indra Sawhney Case : Basic structure of the Constitution
(b) Minerva Mills Case : Invocation of Article 356
(c) Menaka Gandhi Case : Just, fair and reasonable procedure of law
(d) Gopalan Case : Financial Emergency
Ans: (c)


57. Assertion (A) :An accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation.
Reason (R) :The accused person can get his conviction quashed upon vague and obscure charges.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Writ) List-II (Matter in Dispute)
A. Habeas Corpus 1. Appointment of a university teacher
B. Mandamus 2. Custody of a child by parents
C. Quo-Warranto 3. Violation of natural justice
D. Certiorari 4. Refund of money illegally collected as cess by taxing authority
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans: (b)


59. Right to life emanates from:

(a) Article 21 and includes right to die
(b) Article 19 and does not include right to die
(c) Articles 19 and 20 and does include right to die
(d) Article 21 and does not include right to die
Ans: (d)


60. Which of the following Article (s) of the Constitution of India is/are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Article 14 or Article 19?

(a) Article 31 A only
(b) Article 31 C only
(c) Article 31 A and Article 31 C both
(d) Neither Article 31 A nor Article 31 C
Ans: (c)


61. Assertion (A) :Article 14 of the Indian Constitution does not lay down that all laws must be of universal application.
Reason (R) :State has power to classify persons for legitimate purpose and on reasonable grounds.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)


62. For which of the following can special provisions be made under Article 15 of the Constitution of India?
1. Women and children
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Economically backward classes
4. Socially backward classes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)


63. Consider the following statements:
1. Quo-warranto is a very powerful instrument for safeguarding against the usurpation of public offices.
2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a court or judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)


64. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Writs) (Implications)
A. Mandamus 1. Direction to an official for the performance of duty
B. Habeas Corpus 2. Release of an illegally detained person
C. Certiorari 3. Transferring of a case from an interior court to a court of higher jurisdiction.
D. Quo-warranto 4. Calling upon one to show by what authority does he hold or claim a franchise or office.
Codes :
A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)


65. Freedom of the press in India is :

(a) Available to the people under the law of the Parliament
(b) Specifically provided in the Constitution
(c) Implied in the right to freedom of expression
(d) Available to the people of India under executive order
Ans: (c)


66. The right to freedom of religion guaranteed in Article 25 of the Constitution of India is subject to which of the following ?

(a) Public order, morality and to the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India
(b) Public order, morality and health
(c) Reasonable restrictions in the interests of the security of the State
(d) Public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India.
Ans: (d)


67. Which one of the following writs examines the procedures of inferior Courts or Tribunals ?

(a) Quo-warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (d)


68. The 86th Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following ?

(a) Allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created states.
(b) Reservation of 30% posts for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
(c) Insertion of Article 21A related with free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years.
(d) Continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment.
Ans: (c)


69. The Article of the Constitution which automatically becomes suspended on proclamation of emergency is :

(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 32
Ans: (b)


70. Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens ?

(a) Freedom of speech, assembly and form association
(b) Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
(c) Freedom to carry on any occupation, trade or business
(d) Equality before law and equal protection of laws
Ans: (d)


71. Which one of the following writs is issued by an appropriate judicial authority/body to free a person who has been illegally detained ?

(a) Quo-warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Habeas Corpus
Ans: (d)


72. Untouchability has been abolished by the Constitution of India under:

(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17
Ans: (d)


73. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments have added Article 15 (5) in the Constitution of India providing for reservation in educational institutions in the private sector also ?

(a) 81st Amendment
(b) 86th Amendment
(c) 91st Amendment
(d) 93rd Amendment
Ans: (d)


74. The writ of certiorari is issued by a superior court to :

(a) An inferior court to stop further proceedings in a particular case
(b) An inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for review
(c) An officer to show his right to hold a particular office
(d) A public authority to produce a person detained by it before the court within 24 hours
Ans: (b)


75. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(a) Right to livelihood is an integral facet of the Right to life
(b) Natural justice is implicit in Article 21
(c) The Right to life includes the Right to health
(d) Right to go abroad is not a Fundamental Right under Article 21
Ans: (d)


76. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The writ of Mandamus can be issued :

(a) Against the legislature for making law
(b) For performance of a public duty
(c) For exercise of discretionary powers
(d) For deciding legality of an arrest
Ans: (b)


77. According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following rights cannot be taken away during emergency ?

(a) Right to speak
(b) Right to freedom of movement
(c) Right to life
(d) Right to organize
Ans: (c)


78. The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights enlisted in the Constitution through which one of the following Amendments ?

(a) 73rd Amendment
(b) 23rd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 76th Amendment
Ans: (c)


79. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Writs) (Meanings)
A. Habeas Corpus 1. What warrant or authority
B. Mandamus 2. Certified or to be made certain
C. Certiorari 3. Command to perform public duty
D. Quo-Warranto 4. Produce the body of a person
Codes:
A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (a)


80. Under the provisions of the Indian Constitution, a community can be declared a minority community on the basis of:

(a) Religion only
(b) Either religion or language
(c) Either language or caste
(d) Either religion or race
Ans: (b)


81. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the :

(a) Freedom of conscience
(b) Right to propagate religion
(c) Right of minorities to establish and manage educational institutions
(d) Cultural and educational rights of the majority community
Ans: (c)


82. The 93rd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with :

(a) Right to education
(b) Rights in respect of physically handicapped persons for appointments in the services under the state
(c) Reservation for admission in educational institutions
(d) Reservation in the matters of promotion in the services under the State in favour of the other backward classes.
Ans: (c)


83. The Supreme Court of India declared by issuing a writ that “the respondent was not entitled to an office he was holding or a privilege he was exercising”. Which writ is that ?

(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Prohibition
(c) Quo-Warranto
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (c)


84. When emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution is proclaimed, the President of India has no power to suspend the Fundamental Rights contained in which of the following Articles ?

(a) 20 and 21
(b) 19 and 20
(c) 21 and 22
(d) 19 and 21
Ans: (a)


85. Which one of the following is not covered under Article 20 of the Constitution of India ?

(a) Ex post facto laws
(b) Preventive detention
(c) Double jeopardy
(d) Self-incrimination##)

Ans: (b)


8. Directive Principles of State Policy I.47

1. Which of the following statements about a uniform civil code is/are correct?
1. It is binding on the State that a uniform civil code must be made applicable to all.
2. The provision regarding a uniform civil code is contained in Part III of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)


2. Directive Principles of State Policy direct the State for which of the following?
1. To secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people
2. To separate judiciary from executive
3. To improve public health
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)


3. Consider the following statements:
Directive Principles of State Policy are:

1. Directives in the nature of ideals of the state
2. Directives influencing and shaping the policy of State
3. Non-justiciable rights of the citizens
Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)


4. Which of the following statements about the changes made by the forty second amendment to the Constitution relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy are correct?
1. It enabled State to provide free legal aid to its citizens.
2. It provided for the State to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings.
3. It required the state to minimise inequalities in income and status.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)


5. Which one of the following is the real guiding factor for the State to meet social needs and for the establishment of new social order?

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble of the Constitution
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Distribution of Powers
Ans: (c)


6. Which one of the following is not stated as a Directive Principle of State Policy in the Constitution of India?

(a) Organisation of village panchayats
(b) Uniform civil code for the citizens
(c) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
(d) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
Ans: (d)


7. Assertion (A) :The Directive Principles of State Policy contained in the Constitution of India are relevant in determining the limits of reasonable restrictions laid down in Article 19 dealing with the Fundamental Right to Freedom.
Reason (R) :The Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution have been superseded by the Directive Principles.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (c)


8. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy contained in the Constitution are not enforceable by any court, yet they are:

(a) Fundamental in the governance of the country
(b) Binding on the State
(c) Enforceable at the instance of the President
(d) Superior to Fundamental Rights of India
Ans: (a)


9. Which of the following are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India?
1. Uniform civil code for the citizens
2. Separation of judiciary from executive
3. Protection of monuments of national importance
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)


10. With respect to the Directive Principles of State Policy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) To secure just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief : Article 42
(b) To organise village Panchayats as units of self government : Article 40
(c) To secure the improvement of public health and the prohibition : Article 47
of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health
(d) To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance : Article 50
Ans: (d)


11. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

(a) The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code.
(b) The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections.
(c) The State shall endeavour to promote adult education to eliminate illiteracy.
(d) The State shall endeavour to protect every monument, place or object of artistic or historic interest.
Ans: (c)


12. Which one of the following is not the objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) To establish a welfare state
(b) To ensure socio-economic justice
(c) To establish a religious state
(d) To establish a secular state
Ans: (c)


13. Assertion (A) :The directive principles of state policy are not enforceable by any court.
Reason (R) :The directive principles are more or less fundamental in the governance of the country.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)


14. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

(a) Primacy is given to all the directive principles contained in Part IV of the Constitution over fundamental rights.
(b) Primacy is given to all the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14-32 of the Constitution over directive principles.
(c) Primacy is given to all the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution over directive principles.
(d) Primacy is given only to directive principles in clauses (b) and (c) of Article 39 over fundamental rights conferred by Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution.
Ans: (d)


15. Which one of the following Directive Principles was not originally provided for in the Constitution of India?

(a) Citizen’s right to an adequate means of livelihood
(b) Free legal aid
(c) Uniform civil code for the citizens
(d) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows and calves
Ans: (b)


16. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’ is a:

(a) Directive Principle of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Right
(c) Fundamental Duty
(d) Constitutional Right
Ans: (a)


17. Assertion (A) :Secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution of India in the sense that the State should be neutral to the different religions.
Reason (R) :One of the Directive Principles of State Policy states that it will be a part of the duty of the state to improve the breeds of cattle and stop the slaughter of cows and calves.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)


18. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

(a) Organisation of Village Panchayats
(b) Uniform Civil Code for citizens as well as non-citizens
(c) Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases
(d) Participation of workers in management of industries
Ans: (b)


19. “Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution” was described by:

(a) Granville Austin
(b) A. V. Dicey
(c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(d) K. C. Wheare
Ans: (a)


20. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the responsibility of the state towards international peace and security?

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Emergency provisions
(d) Preamble to the Constitution
Ans: (b)


21. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.
2. Minerva Mills case ruled that there has to be a balance between Part III and Part IV of the Constitution.
3. National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution has recommended that Directive Principles be made justiceable.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans: (a)


22. Assertion (A) :Laws covered under Article 39 (b) and (c) have been given protective shield against some of the fundamental rights.
Reason (R) :The Directive Principles are also regarded relevant for considering what are reasonable restrictions under Article 19.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)


23. Which of the following is/are among Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. The State shall strive to promote science and technology for development.
2. The State shall endeavour to secure for citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout India.
3. The State shall try to develop population policy and family planning programmes.
4. The State shall take steps to promote tourism.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)


24. The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental for the:

(a) Upliftment of backward classes
(b) Protection of individual rights
(c) Administration of justice
(d) Governance of state
Ans: (d)


25. Assertion (A) :Any individual affected due to violation of any of the Directive Principles of State Policy, cannot move the court.
Reason (R) :The Directive Principles are not justiciable.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


26. Which one of the following statements regarding the current status of the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is correct?

(a) Directive Principles cannot get priority over Fundamental Rights in any case.
(b) Directive Principles always get priority over Fundamental Rights.
(c) Fundamental Rights always get priority over Directives Principles.
(d) In some cases Directive Principles may get priority over Fundamental Rights.
Ans: (d)


27. Right to work in India is a:

(a) Fundamental right
(b) Directive principle
(c) Constitutional right
(d) Constitutional duty
Ans: (b)


28. Assertion (A) :It is the legal and Constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to the poor.
Reason (R) :No one shall be denied justice by reason of his poverty.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)


29. Consider the following statements:
Directive Principles of State Policy are:

1. Not amendable
2. Not enforceable by any court
3. Fundamental in the governance of the country
Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)


30. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act, 1935, has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as:

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Emergency provisions
Ans: (b)


31. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts.
(b) Directive Principles have a political sanction.
(c) Directive Principles are declaration of objectives for State Legislation.
(d) Directive Principles promise equal income and free health care for all Indians.
Ans: (d)


32. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. Article 44 of the Constitution of India provides for promotion of cottage industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2##)

Ans: (d)


9. Fundamental Duties I.54

1. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen according to Article 51-A of the Constitution?
1. To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy
2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem
3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the society
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)


2. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Indian Constitution are correct?
1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. Fundamental duties have formed a part of the Indian Constitution since its adoption.
3. Fundamental duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
4. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d)


3. Which of the following duties have been prescribed by the Indian Constitution as Fundamental Duties?
1. To defend the country
2. To pay income tax
3. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
4. To safeguard public property
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)


4. Which of the following is a fundamental duty of every citizen of India?

(a) To be truthful to one’s duties
(b) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of children
(c) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of human beings
(d) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
Ans: (d)


5. The ‘Fundamental Duties’ are intended to serve as a reminder to:

(a) The State to perform duties conferred by the Constitution
(b) The judiciary to administer justice properly
(c) Every citizen to observe basic norms of democratic conduct
(d) The legislature to make laws for the welfare of the people
Ans: (c)


6. Which of the following are included in the list of fundamental duties in the Constitution?
1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions
2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
4. To uphold and protect secularism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)


7. Respect for the National Flag and the National Anthem is:

(a) A fundamental right of every citizen
(b) A fundamental duty of every citizen
(c) A directive principle of state policy
(d) An ordinary duty of every citizen
Ans: (b)


8. Consider the following statements:
The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:

1. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
2. To safeguard private property
3. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life
Of these statements:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans: (d)


9. Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, in accordance with the recommendations of:

(a) Santhannam Committee
(b) Sarkaria Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Indira Gandhi-Nehru Committee
Ans: (c)


10. Which one of the following has not been enumerated in the Constitution of India as being amongst the fundamental duties of the citizens?

(a) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(c) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(d) To secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people
Ans: (d)


11. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(a) To respect the National Anthem
(b) To safeguard public property
(c) To protect monuments and places of national
(d) To protect and improve the natural environment importance
Ans: (c)


12. Consider the following statements:
Fundamental duties:

1. Have always been a part of the Constitution of India
2. Have been added through an amendment
3. Are mandatory on all citizens of India
Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)


13. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty under Article 51-A of the Constitution of India?

(a) To render national service when called upon to do so
(b) To cast vote in the elections
(c) To strive for excellence
(d) To develop scientific temper
Ans: (b)


14. Following duties have been prescribed for the State and the citizens:
1. To develop scientific temper
2. To promote common brotherhood
3. To organise village panchayats
4. To minimizse the inequalities in income
5. To secure a uniform civil code
6. To defend the country
Among these, the fundamental duties of the citizens would include:

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 6
(d) 2, 5 and 6
Ans: (c)


15. Which one of the following is not included as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution of India?

(a) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle.
(b) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
(c) To protect the minorities.
(d) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Ans: (c)


16. Protection of lakes is an objective expressly stated in which one of the following ?

(a) Fundamental Duties
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution
Ans: (a)


17. In which of the following years, the Fundamental Duties have been added in the Constitution of India ?

(a) 1965
(b) 1976
(c) 1979
(d) 1982
Ans: (b)


18. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relate to the protection and improvement of environment ?

(a) Article 48A only
(b) Article 51A only
(c) Both Article 48A and Article 51A
(d) Neither Article 48A nor Article 51A##)

Ans: (c)


10. Amendment of the Constitution I.58

1. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill only in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Bill for amendment of the Constitution of India has to be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)


2. If an amendment of the Constitution of India seeks to make any change in certain items, the amendment requires to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States before the Bill making provision for such amendment is presented to the President for assent. Which of the following are those items?
1. Representation of States in Parliament
2. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule
3. Manner of election of the President of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)


3. Restriction of the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution is possible through:

(a) An amendment of the Constitution passed by two-third majority of members present and voting and a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament.
(b) An amendment of the Constitution passed by a simple majority of members present and voting in both Houses of Parliament.
(c) An amendment of the Constitution passed by two-third majority of members present and voting, and a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament together with the ratification of half of the State Legislatures.
(d) An amendment of the Constitution passed by two-third majority of members present and voting and a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament together with the ratification of three quarters of the State Legislatures.
Ans: (c)


4. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill, after passing by each House of Parliament, the President:

(a) Shall give his assent
(b) May give his assent
(c) May withhold his assent
(d) May return the Bill for reconsideration
Ans: (a)


5. Which of the following are matters on which the Parliament has the power to modify provisions of the constitution by a simple majority?
1. Alternation of names, boundaries and areas of States
2. Appointment of additional judges
3. Abolition of the second chamber of a State Legislature
4. Administration of Scheduled Areas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)


6. The constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constitution:

(a) Includes power to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal of the provision of the Constitution
(b) Is unrestricted by any inherent and implied limitations
(c) Is not procedurally limited and restricted
(d) Is extra-constituent
Ans: (a)


7. A change in which of the following does not require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states by resolutions to that effect passed by those legislatures before the bill making provisions for an amendment in the Constitution of India is presented to the President for assent?

(a) Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule
(b) The provisions of Article 368
(c) Article 73 about extent of executive power of the Union
(d) Article 161 about power of Governor to grant pardon
Ans: (d)


8. Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution?
1. Multiple procedures for amendment
2. States are not empowered to initiate amendment
3. Joint-sittings of Parliament to resolve disputes regarding constitutional amendments.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)


9. A Constitutional amendment shall also be ratified by legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by a resolution if it is meant to make any change in:

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) High Court Provisions
Ans: (d)


10. An amendment of the Constitution of India for the purpose of creating a new state must be passed by:

(a) Simple majority in Parliament
(b) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the states
(c) Two-thirds majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than two-third of the states
(d) Two-third of the members of both houses of Parliament present and voting
Ans: (a)


11. The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with:

(a) Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
(b) Procedure for amendment of the constitution to be followed by Parliament
(c) Power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution
(d) Passing and ratification of amendment Bills by State Legislatures
Ans: (c)


12. How can an amendment in a list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India be initiated?
If the Bill seeking amendment is passed in either House of Parliament by:

(a) A majority of the total membership of that house.
(b) A majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
(c) A majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting and the amendment shall also requires to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States.
(d) A majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting and the amendment shall also requires to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than two-thirds of the States.
Ans: (c)


13. Amendment of which one of the following provisions of the Constitution requires ratification by the Legislatures of the States?

(a) Article 157 relating to the qualifications for appointment as Governor of the State
(b) Article 123 relating to the powers of the President to promulgate ordinances on a subject mentioned in Concurrent List during the recess of the Parliament
(c) Article 56 relating to the term of the office of the President
(d) Article 54 relating to the election of the President
Ans: (d)


14. Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the Constitution:
1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses.
2. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368.
3. To amend 7th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification of more than half of the State legislatures is essential.
4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in the House of the People.
Which of these are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3##)

Ans: (c)


11. Basic Structure of the Constitution I.62

1. Which of the following are considered as parts of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution?
1. Republication and democratic form of Government
2. Secular character of the Constitution
3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Federal character of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)


2. Statement I:The power of Amendment under Article 368 does not include the power to alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
Statement II:The Right to Equality does not form a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Codes:

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (c)


3. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India as a constitutional power was laid down under Article 368 by:

(a) The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951
(b) The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971
(c) The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
(d) The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976
Ans: (b)


4. In which case did the Supreme Court pronounce the judgement for the first time that the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution cannot be amended by Parliament ?

(a) Shankari Prasad case
(b) Golaknath case
(c) Kesavananda Bharati case
(d) Minerva Mills case
Ans: (c)


5. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(a) The Constitution clearly lays down what its basic structure is
(b) The Supreme Court has elaborately defined the basic structure of the Constitution
(c) The Law Commission of India with the help of Attorney-General of India has defined the basic structure of the Constitution
(d) Neither the Supreme Court nor the Parliament have defined the basic structure of the Constitution
Ans: (d)


6. Which one of the following Amendments inserted provision saying that “Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendments made under Article 368” ?

(a) Forty-second Amendment Act
(b) Forty-fourth Amendment Act
(c) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act
(d) Twenty-second Amendment Act
Ans: (c)


7. Under Article 368, the Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because these are:

(a) Enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
(b) Human Rights
(c) Transcendental Rights
(d) Part of basic structure of the Constitution
Ans: (d)


8. Which one of the following cases prompted the Parliament to enact 24th Constitutional Amendment Act ?

(a) Golaknath case
(b) Shankari Prasad case
(c) Kesavananda Bharati case
(d) Minerva Mills case
Ans: (a)


9. Statement I:By amendment, Parliament cannot destroy the basic features of the Constitution.
Statement II:The power to amend does not include the power to abrogate the Constitution.
Codes:

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (a)


10. The Supreme Court invalidated a provision of the Forty-Second Amendment Act, which enlarged the scope of Article 368 to amend Fundamental Rights on the ground that the:

(a) Requisite number of States had not ratified the amendment
(b) Amendment has been enacted during the emergency
(c) Amendment abrogated a basic feature of the Constitution
(d) Rajya Sabha had not passed the amendment with the prescribed majority##)

Ans: (c)


Leave a comment